All this while I've argued to you that Charles was the preeminent forgotten modernist. Or the forgotten preeminent modernist. But maybe he had nothing to do with modernism at all? Is Twain modern in the slightest? Does Author only anticipate the problems that come with modernism in his own unique way and account for them in a way that is much more postmodernist but really can only be called some sort of anomaly that can't factor into these larger literary movements? Must he be relegated into the position of anomalous precursor read only by intellectuals to prove vapid self serving points? Clearly it must be any and all of these. And we must stride on having undertaken that tasks already at hand. Lest we degrade into the nonsense on convoluted pseudo-generic arguments.
Saturday, September 19, 2009
Maybe the Twain thing doesn't make as much sense as I thought it might. Twain was a populist. He was cross generic. He had a fascination with the middle west that didn't peter out when the buzz moved to California, while at the same time not detracting from his fascination with the vrai west literal and imaginary. All of this could be equally said for Charles Author as of Twain. But something leaves a sour taste as comparison.
